Anmol says f(x) = x + 1 / x^2 − 1 and g(x) = 1 / x − 1 represent the same function. Is she correct? Justify your answer.

Answer:No, she is not correct because the functions have different domains.Step-by-step explanation:Hi there! No, she is not correct. Let´s find the values of x for which each function is defined. Any value of x that makes the denominator to be zero, will not be included in the domain of the function: For f(x):x² - 1 = 0Add 1 to both sides of the equation:x² = 1Apply the square root to both sides of the equation:√x² = √1x = 1 and x = -1 For g(x):x-1 = 0 add 1 to both sides of the equation:x = 1 Then, g(x) is defined for all real numbers except 1 while f(x) is defined for all real numbers except 1 and -1. The functions have different domains and, therefore, are no the same. Have a nice day!